![]() ![]() Acute subendocardial inferior infarction.Acute subendocardial anterior infarction.Where is the most likely location for a myocardial infarction to cause this follow-up rhythm: Give the patient a dose of steroids and start on Ibuprofren Explanation.Give the patient a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet.Give the patient an aspirin, start Heparin and assess for thrombolytic contraindications.Give the patient some Valium and tell him that the pain is all in his head.Give the patient a "white slider" (a mixture of lidocaine & maalox).Discontinue warfarin and begin thrombolytic therapy Explanation.Discontinue warfarin and begin heparin at a therapeutic dose.Interrupt the inferior vena cava with a filter.Increase the warfarin dose to bring the INR into therapeutic range.Which therapy would you now recommend for this patient? A venogram documents recurrent thrombosis extending to the inferior vena cava. Since discharge he has been taking warfarin, 2.5 mg daily. He was discharged from the hospital 1 week ago after being treated for deep vein thrombophlebitis of the same leg. Mental status changes, muscle weakness, hyponatremia and decreased serum osmolality with inappropriately elevated urine osmolality ExplanationĪ 50 year old man presents with a 1-day history of recurrent swelling and pain of the left leg.Hypercalcemia, polydipsia, polyuria, mental status changes in the absence of bony metastases.Moon facies, truncal striae, hypertension, hypokalemia, and hyperglycemia.Cerebellar ataxia, dysarthria, deafness, pleocytosis of cerebrospinal fluid, and cerebellar atrophy on CT scan of the brain.Weakness and fatigability, primarily of proximal muscles electromyographic results show increasing amplitude of contraction with repetitive stimulation.Which of the following clinical scenarios is LEAST likely to describe a paraneoplastic syndrome resulting from small cell tumors of the lung? The best time to perform the diagnostic test is during a hemolytic crisis Explanation.It most often is precipitatied by infection.It causes the appearance of Heinz bodies on Wright staining of a peripheral smear.It is more severe in females than in males.It is more severe in affected blacks than in affected persons of Mediterranean ancestry.Which of the following statements best characterizes the hemolysis associated with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency? impaired transfer of reticuloendothelial storage iron to marrow erythroid precursors Explanation.depressed erythroid maturation due to decreased erythropoietin production. ![]() impaired incorporation of iron into porphyrin.Iron stain of a bone marrow aspirate ExplanationĪ 45 year-old woman with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis is diagnosed as having "anemia of chronic disease." The predominant mechanism causing this type of anemia in persons with chronic inflammatory disorders is.Serum iron concentration, total iron binding capacity, and calculated transferrin saturation.Urinary iron excretion in response to a test dose of desferrioxamine.Quantitative iron determination in a liver biopsy specimen.Which of the following procedures would be the most sensitive in detecting early iron overload? administration of high-dose glucocorticoids plus cyclophosphamide.administration of high-dose glucocorticoids.The most effective and appropriate therapeutic maneuver is likely to be: TBili=5 mg/dL DB=0.6 mg/dL BUN=60 mg/dL Creat=4.5 mg/dL Initial physical examination is unremarkable except for scattered petechiae on the lower extremities, scleral icterus, and disorientation on mental status examination. A 45 year old, previously healthy woman presents with jaundice, confusion and fever. ![]()
0 Comments
Leave a Reply. |
AuthorWrite something about yourself. No need to be fancy, just an overview. ArchivesCategories |